Math

Question

1. Anything divided by 0 is indeterminate

2. Anything divided by itself is 1

3. 0 divided by anything is 0

These are general rules that everyone knows, but sometimes they contradict eachother.

What is:

0÷0

And another:

Infinite÷infinite

First let's consider what a number divided by 0 could be

Take this: t

And divide it into 0 parts. Considering the fact that matter can't be created nor destroyed, this is impossible. (Remember that math is just a numerical representation of real world objects) But assuming that it is possible, there are several possibilities.

t÷0 could just be t

The logic for this may be: 0 is the absence of a number so t divided by nothing is t. We aren't actually doing anything to t so it's still t.

t÷0 could also be 0. There being no parts of t means t doesn't exist which makes the answer 0.

There is also the possibility that t÷0 is infinity. To show this we could graph the equation, but for the sake of my time you can just do that in your head lol.

Let's start by substituting t for 7. 7÷0 is indeterminate. But what if we did almost 0. 

7÷0.1=70

7÷0.01=700

7÷0.001=7000

7÷0.0000000001=70000000000

And onward.

So it could be argued that t÷0 is infinity.

There is also another possibility. It could be any number at all. This might be confusing at first but let's take a look at our equation.

t÷0

Substituting t for 7 and 0 for (5-x) we get

7÷(5-x)

Multiplying both sides by (3-x) gives

f(x)=7(3-x)÷(5-x)(3-x)

(f(x) means that f is the name of our equation and x is the variable. If I were to say f(5) we would substitute 5 for x throughout the equation)

f(2)=2.33..

f(2.9)=3.33..

(Skipping 3 to avoid dividing by 0)

f(3.1)=3.68..

f(4)=7

Based on this one could argue that 0 is not a number but simply the absence of a number. And in order to find t÷0 we would need to know what 0 is the absence of.

So t÷0 is undefined 

Going back to our original problem, 0÷0, we could say that the solution could be any of these

1

Infinity

Any number

0

Although we could make a proof for any of these and prove that each is the answer, thinking about it logically:

if we had 0 apples and we gave these apples to 0 people, we gave each person 0 apples. Not one. Not infinity. Not any number. Just 0.

Math is obviously so flawed..

One day I plan to come up with my own mathematical system.. hopefully it'll make more sense..

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Now. Infinity÷infinity.

Infinity is not a definite number. It's just as big as could possibly get. One could argue that infinity is constantly growing (just like the universe lol) or that infinity can't exist.

If infinity=infinity then infinity÷infinity=1

If infinity is just big then infinity doesn't exist. And therefore we can't divide it without a separate representation of this number. (as we have done with imaginary numbers)

In order to solve the mystery we would first need to agree on what infinity is.

If yall have any other insight or impossible equations, drop it in the answers, I'd love to hear or try to solve!

Have an awesome day! Hope this helped more than it confused..

Comments

stop. for everybody's sake, stop. my brain has turned into guacamole.

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you're welcome

Answer 1

---I can't understand----

Comments

Uhhh iz ok :))

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What is 0^0 would it be one

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Interesting...

Let's see

3^3=27

3^2=9 (aka (3^3)÷3)

3^1=3

3^0=1 (following the same logic)

So we could conclude anything raised to the 0th power is one. But:

0^3=0

0^2=0

0^1=0

By this logic, 0÷0 could equal either 1 or 0 so

0^0=0

0^0=1

Thinking by the logic in the post, 0÷0=0 because each group gets 0 there you can't get 1 from 0

So I think

0^0=0

Nothing multiplied by nothing nothing times is nothing. Not 1.

Those are my thoughts, but who knows, maybe it's both. ;D

Answer 2

I would love to see you try and solve this

ζ(s)=n=1∑∞ns1   This is the Riemann Zeta function (I know how to solve it, just testing you)

AND

xn+yn=zn  This is Fermat's last therom, in which n equals to 2. 

GOOD LUCK!!!

Comments

Wait. I don't know that level of math yet-

Though I would like to learn.. I might try sometime :)

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2x+2y=2z

x+y=z

x=z-y

y=z-x

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yes that is true, because it's representing the same relationship in different forms, good job!

What about the Zeta function?

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That's the one I still have to learn about lol

Answer 3

well infinity is an infinite amount of something. So it can never be defined. If you put a random number to define it, it will no longer be considered infinite.

Comments

So infinite isn't a number >:D

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Tecnicly it is, but it's undefinalbe because of it's sheer mass.